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A rabbi visited a ricecake factory, found that the rice never became wet in the process of manufacture (and was sifted well to be sure it's only rice), and decided that the ricecakes, which are anyway certified as kosher for Passover for those who eat kitniyos, are also kosher for Passover for those who don't. (A small amount of more detail is available in Hebrew and an even smaller amount in translation to English.)

Assuming one follows that ruling, can he also eat the ricecakes if (after purchase, say) they are soaked in water awhile? Does the puffing render them imperious to the quasi-leavening (what Chazal call rotting) that rice undergoes, or is there still a concern of such (or of the presence of grain) so that they cannot be eaten once soaked?

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    he.wikisource.org/wiki/… for wheat, but whether or not one should be similarly stringent for Kitniyot I can't say [and it is probably just a judgement call of the Posek since there's no real Minhag here]. See too judaism.stackexchange.com/q/28040/759 – Double AA May 14 '18 at 21:55
  • With kitniyot aren't we concerned that despite the meticulous control, there might be still a grain of wheat that is prone to leavening? – Kazi bácsi May 15 '18 at 11:06
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    @Kazibácsi I've edited. Better now? – msh210 May 15 '18 at 16:25
  • This question seems to assume that the problem of kitniyos may be the fact that rice undergoes "quasi-leavening." I don't think this is correct – wfb May 15 '18 at 18:41
  • @wfb I'm not sure that was intended as an assumption, but arguably that is the Arukh HaShulchan's position. – Double AA May 15 '18 at 18:53

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