Is the first vowel in Tz'lfchd (Bamidbar 27:1) a kamatz katan or a kamatz gadol? If it is the first, should it not be Tz'lof-chad (Ashkenazic: Tz'lof-chod) and if it is the latter, should it not be Tz'la-f'chad (Ashkenazic: Tz'lo-f'chod)?
On the Internet there is hardly any Tz'lof-chad, Tz'lof-chod, Tz'la-f'chad or Tz'lo-f'chod. Are not all other transliterations in error? Only two should be correct, no?