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Talmud Qidushin 3b

סד''א תיתי בקל וחומר מיבמה מה יבמה שאינה יוצאה בגט יוצאה בחליצה, אשה שיוצאה בגט אינו דין שיוצאה בחליצה ... ספר כורתה ואין דבר אחר כורתה

[You could think ... if a yevama that cannot go out by a get, goes out by chalitza, a regular wife that goes out by a get, a fortiori she could go out by chalitza ... No, we learn from the verse that only the act cuts and no other thing]

What is the idea that, unless the מיעוט, chalitza would make sense, or be efficient, on a wife? But chalitza is tailored specifically for a brother-in-law, not for a husband!

The yevama begins saying מאן יבמי the yavam responds, and finally after she spit:

ככה יעשה ... בית אחיו

Some remarks after the comments/answer below:

  • These sayings are not mandatory. However, if the yavam or yevama cannot say them (because they are mute), the chalitza is not OK, in virtue of the principle of כל שאינו ראוי לבילה בילה מעכבת בו. Meforshim explain this principle: ok, tora said to do something, if occasionnaly you didn't, it is not catastrophic; but if there is a case where this thing cannot be done, one is no more in the field of application of this law. So, here, the sayings making no sense, this principle show us that chalitza was not defined here.

  • Seems very difficult to change the sayings to adapt them in every situation: you see the tora wants these precise words to be said, and only in Hebrew (Sotah beginning of perek 7).

  • In Tosfot, they ask why don't say the qal vahomer to free an אמה העבריה. Even there is a מצות יעוד on her, she is primarily a servant, so that her master profit from מעשה ידיה : an economical relation. It is more difficult to see here a divorce.

  • How, at all, we can begin the qal vahomer ומה יבמה שאינה יוצאה בגט etc ... So what?.. Get is weak?! How can we think that a get, that permits an אשת איש, would be weaker than chalitza?! If get don't work on yevama, there must be something particular, but never because of weakness!

  • Why don't say פירכא: מה ליבמה שכן איסור לאו, תאמר באשת איש שיש בה מיתה

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    It could be that the suggestion is for the the mechanics of chalitzah (removal of shoe and possibly also spitting) together with a modified declaration appropriate for a husband. No source though... – Joel K Apr 16 '18 at 11:04
  • Bear in mind that the sayings are not me’akev. See Yevamot 12:3 – Joel K Apr 16 '18 at 11:07
  • I think the idea is that chalitza seems to be "stronger" than a get. A yevama, is somehow so attached to her yevam that a get doesn't work to separate them but still chalitza does. So in the case where a get does work (i.e. a regularly married couple), chalitza should certainly work. – Daniel Apr 16 '18 at 11:16
  • @JoelK But if they can speak, it is meakev (see Yev 104b כל שאינו ראוי לבילה) and here they cannot say these words because it makes no sense... – yO_ Apr 16 '18 at 16:06
  • @Daniel Yes, this is indeed the qal vachomer. But here it is like saying "ומה יבמה שאינה יוצאה בהגבהה יוצאה בחליצה, מיטלטלין שנקנין בהגבהה אינו דין שיקנו בחליצה" ... – yO_ Apr 16 '18 at 16:21
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What is the idea that, unless the מיעוט, chalitza would make sense, or be efficient, on a wife? But chalitza is tailored specifically for a brother-in-law, not for a husband!

What it means to say, is that a wife would do Chalitza on her husband, just like it's done on a brother-in-law.

While, in the Torah, chalitza is introduced for a brother-in-law, that doesn't mean that the same concept can be used for others.

The yevama begins saying מאן יבמי the yavam responds, and finally after she spit:

ככה יעשה ... בית אחיו

The lashon would obviously be changed to something more appropriate for this case.

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  • "The lashon would obviously be changed" IMHO it is not obvious... Edited the question. – yO_ Apr 17 '18 at 7:05
  • You do have a point that the lashon comes from the tora, and therefore how can we change it. I'll try to think of a case where we take a concept from the tora, and we then change it a bit to fit our case – aBochur Apr 17 '18 at 14:48

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