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Hypothetical: During the Pesach holiday, a non-observant person walks into my house with the loaf of bread he just bought, and proceeds to use my regular knife and plate to make a sandwich. Clearly, he has transgressed.

Question: Is a problematic status regarding general kashrut incurred by his transgression regarding Pesach? I know that a Pesach-plate can lose its Pesach status, and a knife would have to be "rekashered" to be replaced in the Pesach fold, but is this same loss of status present regarding the general kosher-ness of the stuff he used (assuming kosher ingredients, just not 'kosher for Passover'). Has he affected the kashrut status of my dish and knife for after Pesach by using ingredients that were kosher but not kosher at that moment?

closed as unclear what you're asking by Double AA Apr 10 '18 at 2:07

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    I'm afraid I don't understand the question – Double AA Apr 5 '18 at 13:29
  • as the food involved was, at that moment, in a sense, "not kosher" does it have a generalized effect on the dishes, making them "not kosher" after Pesach. – rosends Apr 5 '18 at 13:37
  • Which dishes? Which food? What happened to them? The knife used to cut the bread? You mean if you don't rekasher it on pesach, can you just use it after pesach? Please just give a specific case about a specific item and what specific thing you want to know if that item can do. "Generalized kosher status" is way too ambiguous to be meaningful – Double AA Apr 5 '18 at 13:38
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    Are you asking about bliyoth (absorbed taste) of chametz she'avar alav hapesach (leavened products that were owned by a Jew over Passover)? – Loewian Apr 5 '18 at 14:52
  • @Loewian I don't know what the mechanism would be (and whether it would depend on a type of food, temperature or anything else). I'm just wondering if "non-kosher for passover" food can confer a "non-kosher" status on dishes which will require that they get re-kashered after Passover. – rosends Apr 5 '18 at 16:15

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