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A non-Jewish women converted via an Orthodox conversion in order to marry a Jew. At the time of conversion she claimed to accept the mitzvot but did not intend and never kept proper halachot including Kashrut, Shabbos and Taras HaMishpocha- are the children of such a marriage Jews according to Orthodox law?

  • Her children are Jewish if she is Jewish. Your question implies that a lack of intent to keep Judaism could preclude proper conversion. Do you have reason to believe it doesn't? Otherwise, the answer is obviously not... – robev Mar 23 '18 at 22:35
  • I feel like we have a question like this elsewhere on this site – ezra Mar 23 '18 at 22:36
  • Welcome to MiYodeya. Hope to see you around! – mbloch Mar 24 '18 at 16:52
  • How would you determine her intent? Not fulfilling mitzwot is not the same as never intending to. – Aaron Jun 24 '18 at 4:15
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If she truly did not intend to observe the torah, her conversion is invalid. It is a well established Halacha that "Kabalat Ol Mitzvos" (acceptance of the yoke of Mitzvos) is integral to conversion.

"כל הגויים כולם, כשיתגיירו ויקבלו עליהן כל המצוות שבתורה... - הרי הן כישראל לכל דבר" (רמב"ם איסורי ביאה, פרק י"ב, הל י"ז)

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