A non-Jewish women converted via an Orthodox conversion in order to marry a Jew. At the time of conversion she claimed to accept the mitzvot but did not intend and never kept proper halachot including Kashrut, Shabbos and Taras HaMishpocha- are the children of such a marriage Jews according to Orthodox law?

  • Her children are Jewish if she is Jewish. Your question implies that a lack of intent to keep Judaism could preclude proper conversion. Do you have reason to believe it doesn't? Otherwise, the answer is obviously not...
    – robev
    Mar 23, 2018 at 22:35
  • I feel like we have a question like this elsewhere on this site
    – ezra
    Mar 23, 2018 at 22:36
  • Welcome to MiYodeya. Hope to see you around!
    – mbloch
    Mar 24, 2018 at 16:52
  • How would you determine her intent? Not fulfilling mitzwot is not the same as never intending to.
    – Aaron
    Jun 24, 2018 at 4:15

1 Answer 1


If she truly did not intend to observe the torah, her conversion is invalid. It is a well established Halacha that "Kabalat Ol Mitzvos" (acceptance of the yoke of Mitzvos) is integral to conversion.

"כל הגויים כולם, כשיתגיירו ויקבלו עליהן כל המצוות שבתורה... - הרי הן כישראל לכל דבר" (רמב"ם איסורי ביאה, פרק י"ב, הל י"ז)


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