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What is the status of one who needs to undergo a giyur lechumra, but have yet to undergo the actual process? Can they be counted in a minyan? Are they considered Jewish? Can they serve as eydim? FoR: Orthodox.

I understand that someone undergoing a standard giyur will not be counted until they undergo the actual process, but is the same true for someone who is seeking out a giyur lechumra?

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    Welcome to Mi Yodeya and thanks for bringing your question! Please keep in mind that for real-life applications, you should consult your local orthodox rabbi, although how local is a matter of some dispute :) – Y     e     z Mar 5 '18 at 4:23
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In my personal experience having dealt with some individuals who went through a giyur lechumra, it has depended on why they were going through the giyur.

If as far as we know, there was nothing wrong with their (or their maternal ancestors) conversion, but we simply don't recognize (some or all of) the members of the Beis Din through which they converted, they are counted for a minyan. (I never had experience with the eidim aspect, but my hunch is we wouldn't use them for eidim in any situation in which we are choosing eidim, and if they were the only available witnesses to something that happened, we would follow the rules of regular safek, and for example would not extract money on account of their testimony.)

If we have a specific known issue with their status, such as we have reason to believe that their mother did not accept mitzvos, or one of the members of the Beis Din is known to publicly desecrate the Shabbos, just that we don't know if 15 years ago when the conversion happened if he was or not, then they are not counted for a minyan (and I imagine certainly would not count as valid eidim).

I don't have any specific sources for this, but this has been what I've seen practiced.

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    Some people have a giyur l'chumrah if they have a strong tradition their maternal line was Jewish, but can't prove it. – ezra Mar 5 '18 at 4:34
  • @ezra In my one and only experience with that, it was not treated as a giyur lechumra. The person was going to have a full conversion with a beracha and was assumed to be not Jewish. (In the end, they did some super-detective work and proved their tradition was correct, so it didn't end up mattering.) – Y     e     z Mar 5 '18 at 4:42
  • @Y e z I think it depends on how strong the tradition is, what supporting evidence they do have (but not enough evidence), etc. and the beis din. – ezra Mar 5 '18 at 4:46
  • what about in the case where a conversion was previously done (conservative) with three (halakhically valid) men, not for the purposes of marriage but out of sincere conviction on the part of the ger. Would that still require a G'lC? – anonymous Mar 5 '18 at 5:28
  • @anonymous That seems like a separate question - feel free to ask it! – Y     e     z Mar 5 '18 at 18:27

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