In Esther 3:8, Haman describes a group of people in vague terms. He doesn't specify the Jews. Why not?

Related to this, does Achashverosh have any clue to what he's referring to? Or, does it not matter to the king who it is; he's not happy with any group that doesn't follow the king's edicts?


IIRC the Medrash on the pasuk Esther 3:8

וַיֹּ֤אמֶר הָמָן֙ לַמֶּ֣לֶךְ אֲחַשְׁוֵר֔וֹשׁ יֶשְׁנ֣וֹ עַם־אֶחָ֗ד מְפֻזָּ֤ר וּמְפֹרָד֙ בֵּ֣ין הָֽעַמִּ֔ים בְּכֹ֖ל מְדִינ֣וֹת מַלְכוּתֶ֑ךָ וְדָֽתֵיהֶ֞ם שֹׁנ֣וֹת מִכָּל־עָ֗ם וְאֶת־דָּתֵ֤י הַמֶּ֨לֶךְ֙ אֵינָ֣ם עֹשִׂ֔ים וְלַמֶּ֥לֶךְ אֵֽין־שֹׁוֶ֖ה לְהַנִּיחָֽם:

says that each of the statements was an answer to an objection raised by Achashveros. They both knew what Haman was talking about but it gave them plausible deniability.

Sefaria.org gives links to 36 commentaries, Esther Rabbah 7:12, Midrash Tehillim 22:5, and Maseches Megilla 13b which discusses the coverstion between Achashveros and Haman.

An analogy can be made to the Final Solution of World War II. The Nazis gave their orders in veiled terms. I have read in History books that the Nuremburg Conference which set up the murders never discussed what was going to be done in explicit terms.

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