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Is there an operative element to Mishloach Manot that requires a sending, i.e. a physical transfer from person to person? (related sources in these related questions )

If I must travel on Purim, I would want to leave bowls of food on my property. I would invite people to come and take.

Assuming that I can be sure that people will come and take and that they will take 2 foods, am I mekayem the mitzvah because the food switches into their reshut (though without a shali'ach or any work by me)?

Then, if I can be, how does the possibility that people either won't show up or won't take the proper amount fit in? Does that invalidate the entire possibility, or because it is a doubt, we look for leniency?

  • The same doubt applies any time you send via messenger, no? Maybe your messenger will goof up. – Double AA Feb 26 '18 at 18:58
  • possible dupe judaism.stackexchange.com/q/69548/759 – Double AA Feb 26 '18 at 18:58
  • In that question, I have effected the change in reshut by placing it according to the answer. Here I have not done so. And here I am not explicitly designating a shaliach (can the recipient be considered a shaliach of the sender?) – rosends Feb 26 '18 at 19:09
  • While I have seen many people leave the package at someone's door if they are not home when they arrive, I wonder about the concept of "sending" (mishloach). I.e. can sending be like mail delivery, where you don't have to be home, but the letter / packaged has been considered sent. – DanF Feb 26 '18 at 19:16
  • @DoubleAA A shaliach may have a chazaka on his side. – Y     e     z Feb 26 '18 at 21:37
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In this answer I quoted several acharonim who entertain the idea that an actual "sending" is necessary.

Darchei Moshe O.C. 695

Eliah Rabba O.C. 695:10

Peri Megadim Mishbetzos Zahav 695:5

Arguably Peri Chadash O.C. 695:4

See there at length.

  • 1
    It’s always better to include relevant information in the post itself. – DonielF Jun 27 '18 at 2:12

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