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When did the Minhag of Sephardim using an upright standing Torah case begin? From the gemara in Megila 32a it's pretty clear that in the times of Chazal this was not the prevalent custom.

So to clarify, I am not asking why they do this or if this was done in Chazal's times, but when it began.

marked as duplicate by msh210 Feb 10 '18 at 21:04

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

  • Your previous question on this topic was marked as a duplicate of this and this. If you're now specifically asking about historical-time-of-origin, or something else specific that wasn't covered by those, could you edit your question to make that clearer? – Rish Feb 10 '18 at 19:19
  • The duplicate question also asks that, I think: "What is the origin and reason for these differences?" (emphasis mine). "Origin" seems to be "when", "reason" seems to be "why". Although I would understand if someone would disagree with me. – רבות מחשבות Feb 11 '18 at 6:06
  • I find your inference interesting, as from the fact that what we call Hagbah Chazarah called Gelilah I had always assumed the exact opposite. I do question the inference, though, as I see nothing on that daf which indicates one way or the other - the way Sefardic Torahs are constructed those Halachos would apply as well. – DonielF Feb 11 '18 at 8:39