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Directly after the phrase "Hashem yimloch l'olam va'ed" * in the paragraph of Az Yashir in the siddur, the phrase is translated into Aramaic: "Hashem malchutei ka'eim l'alam ul'almei alma".

Why is this so?

My personal speculation would that be that the line is left over from when the majority of the Jewish world spoke Aramaic, in order that the person praying would understand what they were saying. I'm not sure about this, though.


* To understand why the phrase "Hashem yimloch l'olam va'ed" is repeated twice, see here.

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    Please note that it is not said by everyone – Kazi bácsi Feb 8 '18 at 7:03
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    Note that Hashem yimloch is also partof K'dusha Disidra en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kedushah - I suspect that the translation to aramaic comes from there (or at the very is based on the idea you have to turn it in learning when no minyan). As this is speculation, I leave it only as a comment – user15253 Feb 8 '18 at 12:42
  • @Kazibácsi I know for sure Nusach Ashkenaz (Minhag Lita/Polin), Nusach Sfard, and almost all variations of Nusach Edot HaMizrach say the line. I think the only people who don't say it are Jeckes and Teimanim, but I'm not sure. – ezra Feb 8 '18 at 15:10
  • @ezra It's a continuum from Germany at one point and Poland on the other. This particular sentence was not said in Böhmen-Mähren-Ungarn either. – Kazi bácsi Feb 8 '18 at 15:49
  • @Kazibácsi Really, so it's not the Polish minhag? I guess you'd know best, judging by your username. (Which I assume is in Polish?) – ezra Feb 8 '18 at 15:56
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I don't know if this will satisfy you but your siddur is following what the Arizal says to do, brought by the Mishnah Berurah.

Rema 51:7

וְכוֹפְלִין פָּסוּק כָּל הַנְּשָׁמָה תְּהַלֵּל יָהּ לְפִי שֶׁהוּא סוֹף פְּסוּקֵי דְּזִמְרָה (טוּר) וְכֵן פָּסוּק ה' יִמְלֹךְ לְעוֹלָם וָעֶד (אַבּוּדַרְהַם)‏

And we say the verse "And we shall praise Hashem" at the end of the Ashrei ("A Psalm of David") (Tur and the Kol Bo), and we double-recite the verse "Let every living soul praise God" because it is the conclusion of "The Psalms of Praise" (Tur), and so too for the verse "Hashem will rule forever and ever (Abudraham).

Mishnah Berurah sk 17

‏ (יז) לעולם ועד - ובשם האר"י כתבו שיש לומר ג"כ תרגום פסוק זה דהיינו שנים יאמר מקרא ואחד תרגום

In the name of the Arizal they wrote to say in addition the pasuk in Aramaic, so you'll have shnayim mikrah veechad targum

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    And that explains why Yekkish siddurim do not have this. – Danny Schoemann Feb 8 '18 at 14:28
  • But shouldn't you add the first part in the other question? judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/89187/… – Kazi bácsi Feb 8 '18 at 14:32
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    @Kazibácsi I wrote the first part to give context to the shnayim mikrah statement – robev Feb 8 '18 at 14:35
  • Perfect, now I understand. But I would still edit it in that answer, I suppose it'd be useful to have it there as well... – Kazi bácsi Feb 8 '18 at 14:38

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