Rashi on 20 (1) says
all these words: [This] teaches [us] that the Holy One, blessed be He, said the Ten Commandments in one utterance, something that is impossible for a human being to say [in a similar way]. If so, why does the Torah say again, “I am [the Lord, your God (verse 2)]” and “You shall have no…” (verse 3)? Because He later explained each statement [of the Ten Commandments] individually. —
The first two commandments were said by Hashem directly to the people; for the rest, Moshe relayed them. (Makkos 24a). The first two commandments use the word “I” which does not appear in the others.
Were there any differences in the the language of the last eight of the Ten Commandments
1] between what Moshe was told and what he relayed to the Jewish people?
2] between what Hashem said in one utterance and what He later explained?
For example, 20 (7) reads,
“You shall not take the name of the Lord, your God, in vain, for the Lord will not hold blameless anyone who takes His name in vain.”
Was Moshe told a version that said something like:
“You shall not take My name, in vain ...”?
Related: What did the Jews hear at Sinai?
If this question is shown to be epikorsus, I will gladly close it.