Apologies in advance if this is too vague of a question, but I really wonder what other people think about this, especially since the story is coming up in a couple of weeks.
I was recently reading a book on the history of Antisemitism, and the first examples of antisemitism were from as early as 500BCE.
I was thinking that the first example would be the story of Shiabud Mitzrayim, or the Egyptians enslaving us. So my question is: When the Egyptians enslaved us, as told in the beginning of Sefer Shemos, was that an Antisemitic act or was it a reasonable political move (or something else entirely)?
In order to define this a little better, let's use the definition of Antisemitism as:
(actions resulting from) prejudice (preconceived opinion that is not based on reason or actual experience) against Jews. This definition is culled from various Internet definitions.
Edit: Kudos to sabbahillel for bringing Rav Hirsch's opinion, what about other Mefarshim?