I see that it is forbidden for a Jewish girl to get married to a non-Jew (E"H 16.1) but why is she forbidden to have relations with him without marriage?

Source please.

(I guess the source might be that she becomes a zona)

  • Don't we already have a question somewhere about relations with gentiles? I think Matt had an answer to it
    – Double AA
    Dec 17, 2017 at 21:14
  • We do and I refer to it at the bottom of my answer - but it asks the other way around judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/51153/…
    – mbloch
    Dec 18, 2017 at 4:03
  • I don't see any answers here even though it says that there are 2 - is this only me? Feb 25, 2018 at 19:06

2 Answers 2


Indeed a Jewish non-married woman is forbidden to have relations with non-Jews. The key sources are Vayikra 19:29

אַל־תְּחַלֵּ֥ל אֶֽת־בִּתְּךָ֖ לְהַזְנוֹתָ֑הּ וְלֹא־תִזְנֶ֣ה הָאָ֔רֶץ וּמָלְאָ֥ה הָאָ֖רֶץ זִמָּֽה׃

Do not degrade your daughter and make her a harlot (zona, see below), lest the land fall into harlotry and the land be filled with depravity.

and Devarim 23:18

לֹא־תִהְיֶ֥ה קְדֵשָׁ֖ה מִבְּנ֣וֹת יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל וְלֹֽא־יִהְיֶ֥ה קָדֵ֖שׁ מִבְּנֵ֥י יִשְׂרָאֵל׃

No Israelite woman shall be a prostitute (kedesha, see below), nor shall any Israelite man be a prostitute.

R Azriel Schreiber explains based on these verses

The Torah itself most certainly forbids any form of prostitution and/or sexual promiscuity among Jews, whether or not both partners involved are Jewish. The classic commentary of Rashi (on the first verse above) explains the word “Zonah” to mean an unmarried woman who is available to many sexual partners. This is whether or not she receives payment for this act.

In the second verse, we find that this prohibition applies equally to both men and women. Rashi here explains that a Kedeshah is a woman who is “Hefker” – not given boundaries, and is set aside to be a Zonah, as we explained above. [...] From these verses, we see that a Zonah is any woman who has multiple sexual partners outside of the context of marriage, and that the state of being a Zonah is a direct prohibition from the Torah.

Thus, if either party is not committed to a monogamous relationship, then it would be the Torah prohibition of Zenut. (Please note, that one also needs to take into consideration the laws of Nidda – there is the Torah prohibition of Niddah.)

See also From where do we know that sexual intercourse with a non-jewish woman is forbidden? on MY - first answer aims to show the interdiction is rabbinic (although it refers to a Jew with a non-Jewish woman). See also here and there.

  • 2
    Pesukim can't be used as sources for Halacha. For example, maybe the Torah means only if she has relations X amount of times with Y men. Question still stands.
    – Yehuda
    Aug 16, 2018 at 12:51
  • @mbloch your answer contradicts itself. These sources are about having multiple sexual relationships simultaneously. Not being with one non jew.
    – Orion
    Aug 17, 2018 at 3:52
  • 1
    @Orion from where do you know this is about multiple simultaneous relations?
    – mbloch
    Aug 17, 2018 at 4:46
  • @Mbloch yeah nm. I felt he implied it by the multiple sexual partners bit. But after looking up the Rashi, Rashi seems to be saying that any sexual relations not part of marriage, or for the sake of of getting married, are Znus and assur whether for a man or a woman.
    – Orion
    Aug 17, 2018 at 14:08

Devarim 7, 3:

ולא תתחתן בם בתך לא תתן לבנו.‏
1. You shall not intermarry with them,
2. Don't give your daughter to a gentile man.

The Gemora Avoda zara 36b says clearly: אלא דאורייתא עובד כוכבים הבא על בת ישראל דמשכה בתריה אבל ישראל הבא על העובדת כוכבים לא ואתו אינהו גזור אפי' ישראל הבא על העובדת כוכבים - ‏

A gentile that has a one-off relationship (without formal marriage) with a Jewess is forbidden from the Torah since through this he gets her to follow his ways.

Chinuch Mitzva 27 in his list of Mitzva written in the Torah

שלא נתחתן עם האמות, וכתב הרמב"ם זכרונו לברכה (פ"יב מהל' איסורי ביאה ה"א) לא עם שבעה עממים ולא עם שאר האמות, שנאמר (דברים ז ג) ולא תתחתן בם. וענין החתנות הוא, שיתן בתו לבנו או בנו לבתו, וכמו שבאר הכתוב (שם) בתך לא תתן לבנו ובתו לא תקח לבנך. וכל שכן המזדוג עמהם, שהוא בעצמו בכלל האסור, ‏

This mitzva is not to marry the nations which the Rambam explains even the nations aside from the 7 Canaanite nations. Chasnus means giving his child over as a partner to the gentile's child and how much more so one who chooses him/herself to have relations with them where he/she personally is included in the prohibition.

Kiddushin (marriage) does not work with a gentile so there is no marriage whatsoever it just looks like marriage so he has no connection to her and she does not require a Divorce. This is evident in Kiddushin 66a.

By relations with a gentile she is called a זונה only in that she is not allowed to marrying a Kohen but she can still marry a Yisroel. This clear from the Rambam here as it says in Yevamos 45a.

The prohibition of ויקרא יט, כט) אל תחלל את בתך להזנותה) of a regular Jewess, is for the father to give his daughter to an Old man like Rabbi Eliezer says in Sanhedrin 76a, whom we follow Lehalacha מיי' פ"כא מהל' איסורי ביאה הלכה כו , סמ"ג עשין מח , טור ושו"ע אה"ע סי' ב סעיף ט.

And the prohibition of לֹא־תִהְיֶ֥ה קְדֵשָׁ֖ה מִבְּנ֣וֹת יִשְׂרָאֵ֑ל וְלֹֽא־יִהְיֶ֥ה קָדֵ֖שׁ מִבְּנֵ֥י יִשְׂרָאֵל׃ is Like Onkles which says that A woman should not marry a Canaanite slave (who's accepted mitzvos as he's had Tevila and mila see Yevamos 46a) and a man should likewise not marry a Canaanite slavewoman (who's accepted mitzvos as she's had Tevila see Yevamos 46a). This is the reason why a Mamzer can marry a slave woman as he is already a product of an illegitimate relationship in Kiddushin 59a, see Rashi there, and Rambam Issurei bia 15,3. and Shulchan Aruch Even Haezer 4,20.

So that is why these 2 Pesukim are clearly not Halachically referring to a relationship with a Gentile contrary to what some Rabbis mistakenly preach.


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