I am an Italian gentile believer in HaShem, who engages in the observance of the noahide precepts, as commanded by the Creator in the Torah.
I have never understood the exact meaning of Devarim 22:13-21 (translation from chabad.org)
If a man takes a wife, is intimate with her and despises her, and he makes libelous charges against her and gives her a bad name, saying, "I took this woman, and when I came to her, I did not find any evidence of virginity for her." Then the girl's father and her mother shall obtain evidence of the girl's virginity, and take it out to the elders of the city, to the gate. And the girl's father shall say to the elders, "I gave my daughter to this man as a wife, and he despised her; And behold, he made libelous charges, saying, 'I did not find evidence of your daughter's virginity.' But this is the evidence of my daughter's virginity!' And they shall spread the garment before the elders of the city. Then, the elders of that city shall take the man and chasten him. And they shall fine him one hundred [shekels of] silver because he defamed a virgin of Israel, and he give it to the girl's father. And she shall be his wife; he shall not send her away all the days of his life.
But if this matter was true: [indeed,] no evidence of the girl's virginity was found they shall take the girl out to the entrance of her father's house, and the men of her city shall pelt her with stones, and she shall die, for she did a disgraceful thing in Israel, to commit adultery [in] her father's house. So shall you clear away the evil from among you.
My questions are these:
Is it correct to state that this is a case of adultery? In Italian translations it translates as "prostituting herself in her father's house"
If I am not mistaken, according to the Torah the obligation of sexual fidelity of a woman arises with the celebration of "Kiddushin", by virtue of which the woman becomes "arusah", and commits adultery if she joins carnally with a man different from her promised groom. In the circumstance described by the aforementioned Devarim passage, how do you know if the woman had sexual relations before or after the celebration of Kiddushin?
If I am not mistaken Jewish Law provides that the death penalty may be applied, in the cases provided by the Torah, only in the presence of two witnesses, and prior warning against the offender, on the part of the same, on the criminal consequences of the his action. In the case in question, do we not miss the two witnesses who have seen the illicit sexual relationship, and consequently also miss the preliminary warning?