Parashas Vayeshev begins (Genesis 37:1, in my own translation):
Jacob lived in the land of his father's dwelling: in the land of Canaan.
I understand why it repeats the already-known fact (35:27, let's say) that Jacob was in Canaan. After all, that sets the stage for the story that follows, in which Joseph is sold down to a different land, where he is followed eventually by Jacob and the family.
But why refer to it here specifically as his father's dwelling land?