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Why do we answer "amen" after saying the words "Yisgadal veYiskadash shmei rabba"?

In all translations that I've seen this is right in the middle of a statement. See here and here..
The complete phrase is "Yisgadal veYiskadash shmei rabba b'alma di v'ra chir'usei" which is "May His great Name become exalted and sanctified in the world that He created according to His will". ("VeYamlich malchusei b'chayeichoin etc.." "May He give reign to His kingship in your lifetimes etc.." is the next sentence.)

Why is there a response in the middle of the first sentence?

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    Great minds think alike! Thanks for adding another expression of this question. I'm still waiting for a more satisfactory answer, and maybe your post will bring more attention.
    – Isaac Moses
    Dec 4 '17 at 21:51
  • @IsaacMoses thanks! missed your question... I like the answer of the magid meisharim but, as you wrote, am hoping for a more satisfactory one in terms of the plain meaning..
    – Ben
    Dec 4 '17 at 21:56

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