In both English and Modern Hebrew, the word for dream means both what goes on in the brain when asleep and an aspiration (e.g. I dream to finish shas/get 50 upvotes on my MiYodeya question).

Is this true in ancient/biblical/mishnaic/rabbinic Hebrew?

I.e. can you find anywhere in pre 20th century Jewish literature that uses the word חלום in this way?

closed as off-topic by mevaqesh, DanF, DonielF, mbloch, sabbahillel Dec 3 '17 at 2:48

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

  • "This question does not appear to be about Judaism within the scope defined in the help center. Note that not all questions about the Hebrew language, about history or news of the Jewish people, about Jewish individuals, or about the State of Israel are necessarily about Judaism." – mevaqesh, DanF, DonielF, mbloch, sabbahillel
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  • 1
    Well Yosef's dreams were actual dreams, but his brothers thought they were aspirations. – Heshy Dec 1 '17 at 13:10
  • 1
    I've voted to close for now as this appears as a strictly "language" question. The phrasing doesn't seem to provide sufficient support for any notion that there may be anything at all that matches your hypothesis. You assume that there are Biblical or rabbinic definition parallels to both Modern Hebrew and English. It's not a great analogy. Modern Hebrew is rapidly getting "corrupted" with English words these days, anyway, so it's losing a lot of it's Biblical "flavor", in a sense. – DanF Dec 1 '17 at 16:16

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