I'm trying to get a better understanding of the general rule that "there is no cooking of already cooked foods".

Let's say a frankfurter has already been cooked (via boiling, etc.) If one puts the frank on the covered "blech" on the stove until it gets roasted and black, to me, it looks like it's being cooked more. Is blackening a frank or any other similar solid cooked food still permitted?

  • Roasting and boiling are different things. – Double AA Nov 19 '17 at 4:41
  • etzion.org.il/he/… – Loewian Nov 19 '17 at 5:20
  • similar judaism.stackexchange.com/q/67902/759 – Double AA Nov 19 '17 at 5:48
  • @Loewian My Ivrit is good to a point. It looks like a thorough article on the subject. If possible, extract and translate the relevant points to create an answer. – DanF Nov 20 '17 at 1:25
  • note, cooking may not be the only issue here - charring is fairly likely going to come onto the issur of burning. – user15253 Nov 20 '17 at 13:50

It is forbidden. Even though there is "no cooking after cooking", that is only when the form of cooking is the same. But to go from boiling to roasting is forbidden

  • Welcoem to Mi Yodeya. Please provide a source to support this information. Offhand, I don't believe that this statement is universally correct. AFAIK, coffee is a permissible example of contradicting this statement. The beans are roasted. One adds hot water to it to make coffee. – DanF Nov 29 '17 at 21:20
  • Welcome to MY. Since MY is different from other sites you might be used to, see here for a guide which might help understand the site. – mbloch Nov 30 '17 at 5:17

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .