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I'm trying to get a better understanding of the general rule that "there is no cooking of already cooked foods".

Let's say a frankfurter has already been cooked (via boiling, etc.) If one puts the frank on the covered "blech" on the stove until it gets roasted and black, to me, it looks like it's being cooked more. Is blackening a frank or any other similar solid cooked food still permitted?

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  • Roasting and boiling are different things.
    – Double AA ♦
    Nov 19, 2017 at 4:41
  • etzion.org.il/he/…
    – Loewian
    Nov 19, 2017 at 5:20
  • similar judaism.stackexchange.com/q/67902/759
    – Double AA ♦
    Nov 19, 2017 at 5:48
  • @Loewian My Ivrit is good to a point. It looks like a thorough article on the subject. If possible, extract and translate the relevant points to create an answer.
    – DanF
    Nov 20, 2017 at 1:25
  • note, cooking may not be the only issue here - charring is fairly likely going to come onto the issur of burning.
    – user15253
    Nov 20, 2017 at 13:50

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It is forbidden. Even though there is "no cooking after cooking", that is only when the form of cooking is the same. But to go from boiling to roasting is forbidden

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  • Welcoem to Mi Yodeya. Please provide a source to support this information. Offhand, I don't believe that this statement is universally correct. AFAIK, coffee is a permissible example of contradicting this statement. The beans are roasted. One adds hot water to it to make coffee.
    – DanF
    Nov 29, 2017 at 21:20
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    Nov 30, 2017 at 5:17

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