I wasn't sure if there exists an issur or minhag to not name your son with your personal name (e.g Shlomo Feivel). I don't think I've ever met a religious Jew with the same name of his father.

But I saw that there was a Tanna or Amora called Abba bar Abba. And that the מהר"י אבוהב 's father had the same name as him. רב יצחק אבוהב. Maybe it's mutar and just no one feels like doing it. ?

I do not think this is a duplicate to the question about naming after living relatives, because I am asking according to those who hold naming after a living relative is permissible. (Thank you to mevaqesh and DonielF.)

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    It is hard to prove the negative, but as you yourself note, there are examples of this, indicating the contrary. I will further note that while there is an Ashkenazi superstition relating to naming after living relatives, it is not uncommon even for them to name after dead fathers.
    – mevaqesh
    Nov 12, 2017 at 4:06
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    From your terminology you seem to be under the impression that name giving is governed by halachah. Any source for what's "muttar" and what's not regarding any names at all?
    – Oliver
    Nov 12, 2017 at 4:06
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    If you ping people using the @ symbol, like @Ari, then they’ll get a notification you’re talking to them. The way you’ve been writing, neither Oliver nor DoubleAA will know you’ve been talking to them.
    – DonielF
    Nov 12, 2017 at 4:14
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    Possible duplicate of Naming Children After Living People
    – mevaqesh
    Nov 12, 2017 at 22:56
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    You may want to clarify that you are only asking according to those who normally allow naming after living relatives.
    – mevaqesh
    Nov 13, 2017 at 2:05

2 Answers 2


The OP has asked about a father naming his son after himself. This implies that the father is living. Ashkenazim have the custom of not naming a child after any living person. One of the reasons is that there is a halachic problem with a father and son having the same name.

I answer at Naming Children After Living People that this is based on the halachic difficulty in kabeid es Avicha when the father and son have the same name. Note that it is not a halacha not to share the name, but a minhag derived from the halachic problems that could arise. From the name given as an example, it seems that the OP is asking from the Ashkenaz viewpoint. IIRC even Sefardim who do name after a (living) grandfather, do not name children after a (living) father. I will look this up to check for confirmation of my memory.

According to Jewish law it is not deemed proper respect to call one’s parent by his/her first name.(Yoreh Deah 240:2) Giving a child the name of the living parent or grandparent would generate confusion and a belittlement of respect.(Chelkat Yaakov, Yoreh Deah 136,Shmirat HaGuf V’haNefesh, Vol. II, 154:9)


Originally I only found implicit references to sefardim not naming a child after a (living) father, while they do name after a (living) grandfather.

As an example, Naming Conventions lists the common Sefardi custom of naming as

Common Sephardic naming conventions (also see Jewish Names):

Firstborn son named after the paternal grandfather,  
second male child after the maternal grandfather,  
first daughter named after the paternal grandmother,  
second female child after the maternal grandmother,  
next child after the paternal uncle or aunt,  
next after maternal uncle/aunt,  

Note that the parents are never included in this list as each additional child gets named after a more remote relative. Since this is still only an implication, I will continue to look further.

Thanks to @Ari for finding the reference in the Sefer Chassidim which deals with this question and explains that Jews are makpid not to name a son after the (living father). The Chida - Rabbi Chaim Yosef David Azulai ben Yitzhak Zerachia - on that page says: And according to all of the minhagim, a person doesn't call his son by the name of himself.

I also found a reference at Names of the Children of Israel by Rabbi Yisrael Kaniel – February 25, 2015 that cites Rabbi Yitzchak Zilberstein (VeHa’arev Na II, pp. 215-218) and R. Menasheh Klein (Teshuvot Mishneh Halachot IX, 248) who discuss this. R. Yehuda Assad (1796-1866) in Yehuda Ya’aleh, Yoreh Deah 247, states that there is a comment by Rashi on Divrei HaYamim I 2:50 that Chur named his son after his own father Kalev who was still alive at the time. In Jerusalem Talmud, Yoma 6:3, we find that Shimon HaTzadik foresaw his own death and instructed his son Nechunya to take his place, thereby sparking the jealousy of his other son Shimon. as well as some other cases. Rabbi Zilberstein also references the Sefer Chassidim 460 speaks about the Ashkenaz custom while Chida, noted in Brit Olam that, although some customs allow naming children after living grandparents, all customs agree not to name after oneself. Additionally, R. Assad is found to have addressed the situation of a father named Yitzchak Ber who named his son Ber. Although it was once accepted to name a child after a living parent, it was no longer the custom, and one must not go against the current prevailing custom.

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    Importantly, your "source" admits that some of the reasons given for the Ashkenzai superstition of not naming after the dead have no source. Significantly, I (while I don't have the Helkat Yoav at the moment) it doesn't seem that the Helkat Yoav is talking about not naming after any living people. So at the end o the day, AFAICT there is no source for the assertion that " To forestall such errors, Ashkenazim simply did not name children after a living person." (unless maybe Shmirat HaGuf V'hanefesh made it up, not that that would be so significant anyway as the practivce precedes [cont.]
    – mevaqesh
    Nov 12, 2017 at 23:15
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    [cont.] precedes him by centuries. Regardless, the general issue of naming after the dead is irrelevant to the question, so there is no reason to weaken your post with questionable assertions about the reason for not naming after the living in general, rather than simply addressing reasons not to name after a living father, which was the actual question.
    – mevaqesh
    Nov 12, 2017 at 23:17
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    The main reference that helped me was from your referenced post: the Sefer Chassidim hebrewbooks.org/pdfpager.aspx?req=14561&st=&pgnum=117 . He's a Rishon that mentions my question and says that Jews are makpid to not do this. And to mention how Sepharadim are usually noheg; see the Chida's Pirush on that same page addresses this. He says: And according to all of the minhagim, a person doesn't call his son by the name of himself. However, I saw one place that (al derech mashal) for example, a Jewish man whose name is Mordechai called the name of his son Mordechai. And it was [cont]
    – Ari
    Nov 13, 2017 at 3:05
  • [cont] strange in my eyes very much. I marked this Best Answer because through the link to the other post I found a very helpful Mareh Makom. Moderators can give him best answer or not. And of course you could edit your answer to include my addition. (The Chida's wide scoped knowledgable and trustworthy assertation of all minhagim he knows of is pretty awesome.) Thank you
    – Ari
    Nov 13, 2017 at 3:06

In his diary entry for June 7th, 1778 R. Hayyim Joseph David Azulai mentions a case of a father and son (both living) with the same name. In fact the father also had the same name as his father in law, so there were three generations of same-name-men.

אחר מנחה הלכנו לפרנס משה די פינטו חתן משה די פינטו ובנו הקטן נק' משה די פינטו

After Minha we went to the Parness Moses de Pinto, son-in-law of Moses de Pinto – and his small son is also called Moses de Pinto!

R. Azulai apparently thought this interesting and significant enough to mention (though it has no bearing on what he was discussing) and does not mention any objections to this.

  • Although presumably here the child was not named for his father but for his grandfather (whatever that means)
    – Joel K
    Nov 17, 2020 at 6:07

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