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Why did Hashem bother to ask all the other nations if they wanted to get the Torah when He knew they'd say no? (See Midrash Sifri, Deuteronomy 343)

(I already know Hashem is beyond time)

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So they should not have complaints we should have the offer to we would have said yes. As we know at Har Sinai "Sina Yardah Lolam"

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The Sifri offers many different interpretations of the passuk at the beginning of ha'azinu, one of which is this famous midrash. I don't think the midrash literally means God went to each nation to offer them the Torah, since they mostly didn't have prophets, and God had already chosen the Avos and their descendants.

Instead, it may be expressing a certain idea of how the other nations weren't suitable to accept the Torah and why Bnei Yisrael were. The other nations' founding ancestors each had certain flaws which there descendants followed in, while the Avos followed the correct path, and their descendants also did.

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He didn't ask. They changed the sheva mitzvos and therefore rejected the Torah from G-d. This is why Mishpatim is next to Yisro: because we kept them unconditionally even though we were in Egypt and enslaved.

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    As noted on your other answers, please write in normal English: in mixed case and with punctuation. In this case I've fixed your post for you.
    – msh210 ♦
    Jun 23, 2011 at 20:30
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    some sources would also be great.
    – Menachem
    Jun 23, 2011 at 23:31

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