The Gemara and other sources use different words to say that something is permitted. There are "shari" "muttar" "leis lon boh".

Is there any difference in shades of meaning between these and others please?

  • Michael, Welcome to Judaism.SE, and thanks very much for the interesting question! Please consider registering your account, to help the site keep track of your contributions and give you access to all of its features.
    – Isaac Moses
    Jul 4, 2011 at 22:27
  • 4
    It is likely that the difference between the first two examples you listed is whether they appear in a Hebrew or Aramaic context. Generally a tana or early amora, speaking Hebrew, will use mutar, which is Hebrew, while most amoraim (not quoting one of the above), speaking Aramaic, will use shari, which is Aramaic. This is not to say there are not shades of difference in meaning between the words, just an observation.
    – WAF
    Jul 5, 2011 at 0:57

1 Answer 1


As WAF said:

"Shari" is Aramaic for "permitted"; "mutar" is Hebrew. If it was a Mishnaic subject, most likely the word would be "mutar."

"Leis lon boh" means "not a problem." (Or literally, there is nothing for us [prohibited] in it.) I.e. a limitation on a prohibition. Usually the context is something like:

It is prohibited to do X; however that's only in circumstance Y. In circumstance Z, leis lon boh.

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .