Also in other semitic languages, see Why do feminine-looking numbers agree with masculine nouns and vice versa in Hebrew and Arabic?. As other languages seemingly stemmed from Biblical Hebrew (Loshon Hakodesh), what is the reason (secret meaning) of this polarity?

Note: I am not simply asking for an explanation of the grammatical phenomenon, but for Jewish sources who give some Jewish approach to this phenomenon of the Hebrew language.

closed as off-topic by mevaqesh, sabbahillel, DonielF, Gershon Gold, mbloch Oct 22 '17 at 3:07

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

  • "Questions about the Hebrew language or about history or news of the Jewish people, Jewish individuals, or the State of Israel, except as related to Judaism, are off-topic. If this question does relate to Judaism, please edit it to indicate how." – mevaqesh, sabbahillel, DonielF, Gershon Gold, mbloch
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  • 1
    It is not true that Arabic developed from Hebrew, please read the basics here: en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semitic_languages – Kazi bácsi Oct 21 '17 at 21:00
  • That's why I said Loshon Hakodesh - presumably, the language that preceded the creation. – Al Berko Oct 21 '17 at 21:53
  • "As other languages seemingly stemmed from Biblical Hebrew" detailing why you think this would be the case would improve the question. – mevaqesh Oct 21 '17 at 23:27
  • Questions about Hebrew are off-topic. If you could please explain why this is related to Judaism, I would be more than happy to rescind my vote to close. – DonielF Oct 22 '17 at 0:38
  • 1
    @AlBerko “I don’t know how can you set Hebrew off-topic if this is the language of Judaism.” Sorry, I didn’t make the rules. The list of impermissible topics very clearly states that “questions unrelated to Judaism, even if they are about ... Hebrew language ... are generally off-topic.” (Con’t) – DonielF Oct 22 '17 at 12:02

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