Also in other semitic languages, see Why do feminine-looking numbers agree with masculine nouns and vice versa in Hebrew and Arabic?. As other languages seemingly stemmed from Biblical Hebrew (Loshon Hakodesh), what is the reason (secret meaning) of this polarity?

Note: I am not simply asking for an explanation of the grammatical phenomenon, but for Jewish sources who give some Jewish approach to this phenomenon of the Hebrew language.

  • 1
    It is not true that Arabic developed from Hebrew, please read the basics here: en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semitic_languages Oct 21, 2017 at 21:00
  • That's why I said Loshon Hakodesh - presumably, the language that preceded the creation.
    – Al Berko
    Oct 21, 2017 at 21:53
  • "As other languages seemingly stemmed from Biblical Hebrew" detailing why you think this would be the case would improve the question.
    – mevaqesh
    Oct 21, 2017 at 23:27
  • Questions about Hebrew are off-topic. If you could please explain why this is related to Judaism, I would be more than happy to rescind my vote to close.
    – DonielF
    Oct 22, 2017 at 0:38
  • 1
    @AlBerko “I don’t know how can you set Hebrew off-topic if this is the language of Judaism.” Sorry, I didn’t make the rules. The list of impermissible topics very clearly states that “questions unrelated to Judaism, even if they are about ... Hebrew language ... are generally off-topic.” (Con’t)
    – DonielF
    Oct 22, 2017 at 12:02


Browse other questions tagged .