Although this is a really basic quesiton, the topic is way beyond my education, so please excuse the lack of sources, background knowledge and proper terms, and please help me improve.

I understand that items cooked in a vessel take on, to some extent, the status of that vessel. In general, we must count the whole volume of the vessel in a bitul b'60 calculation -- and usually the vessel's volume is more than 1/60 of the whole, so the vessel is not batul.

Why, then, do we not, strictly speaking, have to wait after eating something that was made with meat keilim? (It may be that we do have to wait after eating meat to eat something made on dairy keilim?)

  • etzion.org.il/en/…
    – Isaac Moses
    Oct 19, 2017 at 18:33
  • @IsaacMoses Thanks. So why do we have to kasher after cholov akum/pas akum?
    – SAH
    Oct 19, 2017 at 18:38
  • @IsaacMoses And why would we have to wait after eating meat to eat something made on dairy equipment?
    – SAH
    Oct 19, 2017 at 18:39
  • 3
    SAH Pat Akum is not kosher. The leniency of nat bar nat only applies to currently kosher flavors (known as "nat bar nat de-hetera" as opposed to "nat bar nat de-issura"). cc @IsaacMoses
    – Double AA
    Oct 19, 2017 at 18:43
  • 2
    (I know this is going to confuse you further, but needing to wait is only one measure of what makes something meat. See for instance judaism.stackexchange.com/q/28612/759 and even those who are strict in some of those cases agree it's just a custom, not basic law. It is not a priori the case that everything which could create a problem with dairy causes you to need to wait. It could be that the custom has developed to be strict as if that were so, but again that is not strictly speaking the basic law.)
    – Double AA
    Oct 19, 2017 at 18:50


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