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[Edited] In Bereshit, Torah says the woman will be called Isha, that comes from Ish and is parallel to Ish. Later, Torah says Adam gave to אשתו a new name Chava. Now אשתו appears (out of nowhere) as "his wife", not as her name. Ish is used as man and Baal is used as husband, but Isha did not change and means both. Interestingly, both Targumim bring a different interpretation on the pasuk "כי מאיש לקחה זאת" - Onkelos proposing "מבעלה" and Yonatan "מגברא". Both oppose Rashi's view that "לשון נופלת על לשון".

  • Not really on-topic for this site... – ezra Oct 18 '17 at 17:15
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    @ezra, why not? It is asking about word usage in the Torah. – Yishai Oct 18 '17 at 17:17
  • @AlBerko meta.stackexchange.com/questions/164899/… – Yishai Oct 18 '17 at 17:17
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    Maybe that's just the way the language works, and dibra Torah kil'shon b'nei adam. In French femme means both wife and woman, while in Spanish mujer means both wife and woman, while in Farsi زن also means either. The Old English wif, the source for wife, also meant woman. || This appears to be a general linguistic phenomenon, with language probably reflecting usage and regnant culture. [cont.] – mevaqesh Oct 18 '17 at 17:24
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    @mevaqesh If you're right, then there should be support available from sources that discuss the general concept and implications of "dibra Torah kil'shon b'nei adam." Being answerable based on general principles doesn't make the question weak. And there's certainly no reason to expect that every question about word choice in Tanach would be answerable based exclusively on commentaries ad locum. If you've got knowledge about the Torah that addresses the question, the best place to share it is in the answer box. – Isaac Moses Oct 19 '17 at 18:50

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