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Reuven from outside Israel spends Yom Tov (Thursday, Friday [for him]) followed by Shabbos with Shimon, an Israeli. I was told that Shimon cannot make havdoloh for Reuven after Shabbos because Reuven needs a havdoloh which included an element of separation from Yom Tov.

Does anyone know a source for this?

Related: Can an Israeli and and American fulfill havdalah after Shabbos the first day of Yom Tov together?

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    "Reuven needs a havdoloh which included an element of separation from Yom Tov" - and what would that be? We all make the identical havdoloh, so it's not in the Nussach. So what is it? – Danny Schoemann Oct 17 '17 at 11:58
  • @DannySchoemann I agree with your question. The element of separation, I assume, would be in his intention. – Avrohom Yitzchok Oct 17 '17 at 12:06
  • But they're both saying Havdalah for the same thing: Shabbos. There is no other Havdolah being said now. – Salmononius2 Oct 17 '17 at 13:39
  • The concept mentioned in your 2nd sentence sounds extremely contradictory. When Yom Tov is followed by Shabbat, no havdalla is done in the Shabbat Kiddush at all. Yom Tov is just, plainly, over. Just because the Israeli had a break between Yom Tov and Shabbat and it was Shabbat for both of you, that break invalidates his havdalla for you? That doesn't make sense. The chutznik never had any requirement for a Yom Tov Havdalla. – DanF Oct 17 '17 at 18:32

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