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Although my perspective is limited to a handful of Jewish communities in a few different states, it seems the "modern" communities adopted saying the pesukim of תְּהִלַּת ה after שִׁיר הַמַּעֲלוֹת benching as opposed to the "yeshivish" communities. Are there sources which may suggest why the contrast was created?

marked as duplicate by sabbahillel, mevaqesh, DonielF, mbloch, Danny Schoemann Oct 15 '17 at 8:07

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  • related judaism.stackexchange.com/q/7399/759 – Double AA Oct 9 '17 at 2:04
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    Why should the recitation of verses require pesak?? Why assume that it isn't simply mimetic? How could anyone possibly even answer this? Even finding sources would be no proof that those sources caused the alleged change. – mevaqesh Oct 9 '17 at 2:16
  • @mevaqesh Points well taken - wouldn't achronim discuss whether to say it or not? Based on that, it would seem one could suggest where the contrasting minhagim came from as certain poskim said to say תְּהִלַּת ה while others said to not add to שִׁיר הַמַּעֲלוֹת. – NJM Oct 9 '17 at 2:22
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    For the record I think I've seen yekki Jews say it, not specifically "modern". – robev Oct 9 '17 at 2:36
  • @NJM One could at best conjecture, as the question is probably unknowable. It seems unlikely that poskim would say not to say it, as there seems little harm in reciting innocuous verses of Psalms. | It seems much more productive to try finding a lot of siddurim and references and seeing if any trend appears. Ultimately, the answer would probably remain unknown, but judaism.stackexchange.com/q/7399/8775 seems to basically be the best way to ask this question, consider at least referencing it, and determining whether the information from it answers your question. – mevaqesh Oct 9 '17 at 3:01

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