If someone took someone's esrog on chol hamoed and threw it on the floor and the pitum fell off. How do we evaluate how much the damager has to pay the damagee? Since on the second day (chol hamoed with bracha) one can use an esrog without a pitum bshaas hadchak how would we evaluate the payment due to the damagee. A big factor would be that the damagee paid alot becuase of the pitum.

  • How about the market value right before the damage minus the market value after? Do you have any reason to assume that that wouldn't be the determinant? What is the determinant in normal cases of damage? That would be useful in answering this question. As of now, this question does not show any research effort. – mevaqesh Oct 4 '17 at 16:23
  • @mevaqesh I am not as knowledgeable as you are apparently,so thats why I am asking. I don't know how payment works – sam Oct 4 '17 at 17:25
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    There used to be sellers that offered pitum "insurance". No joke! I haven't seen this done in about a decade, in my area, but I'd imagine thre are some still doing this. If the buyer has this, it sounds like you wouldn't owe him anything other than a tremendous apology. Regardless, you owe yourself a good bit of teshuva. – DanF Oct 4 '17 at 18:04
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    What’s the source that one can use a broken esrog b’sha’as hadechak? (I’ll throw out there that the esrog only needs a pitum if it grew with one - my shul sells esrogim without pitums that are perfectly kasher because they grew without them.) – DonielF Oct 4 '17 at 18:17
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    Wow, whoever threw the esrog on the floor in the first place is "savage." :P – ezra Oct 4 '17 at 19:16

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