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This question already has an answer here:

Usually, when a Jew's father is not a Jew, the name of the maternal grandfather is used when being called up to Torah. (Source?) But what happens if the maternal grandfather does not have a Hebrew name, and the name of the maternal great-grandfather is not known? Would you use the mother's name? Let's also suppose that the grandfather is deceased and cannot be asked for a Hebrew name.

marked as duplicate by sabbahillel, Gershon Gold, Danny Schoemann, Shmuel Brin, Community Sep 6 '17 at 19:48

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  • I would say that the logic is the same as a father with no Hebrew name. – sabbahillel Aug 24 '17 at 23:18
  • @sabbahillel - That is definitely not the same question. I asked that one. – ezra Aug 25 '17 at 1:19
  • @ezra Maybe you can edit to explain why they’re different? As it stands, I tend to agree with sabbahillel that they’re dupes, but I’m willing to hold off my VTC until you explain. – DonielF Aug 25 '17 at 13:21
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    I don't see how it's a duplicate. That asks about a mi sheberach and this asks about calling someone up to the Tora. – msh210 Aug 30 '17 at 16:36
  • Second @msh210 and voting to reopen for this reason. – SAH Dec 26 '17 at 16:21
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We can also call that person with the name of his mother instead. I have seen this several times.

  • Do you have a source, maybe? – ezra Aug 25 '17 at 1:19
  • You can also call him up by his legal English name. You don't even need to call him up by name at all. Just say "you, come on up". – Double AA Aug 25 '17 at 1:24
  • @DoubleAA, יעמד ששי – Noach MiFrankfurt Aug 25 '17 at 1:52
  • My local orthodox rabbis for instance as a source. Also I saw some people in this case called "...son of Abraham" even if the father is not Jewish. Some communities called up people by their mother's name, some other communities mentioned the father's name, rarely with both parents names in the orthodox world. – Eli83 Aug 25 '17 at 1:52

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