There is a prohibition against a Jew eating human flesh. There is a dispute if it is a biblical or rabbinic prohibition (see here, here and here). Either way, I'm wondering if a non jew has the same prohibition. If it's biblical, can we assume since its not one of the seven Noahides Laws they're exempt? Or according to those who say it's one of the "mitzvos sichliot", a prohibition stemming from svara, would they indeed be forbidden? If it's rabbinic, can we assume the Rabbis didn't meddle with non jews' diets? Is this discussed anywhere.
OK, so I'm a lurker/guest and this is an old post but I came across this post and it's not been answered directly.
I'm just going to point out that cannibalism IS prohibited to all men under the Noachide laws. Of the seven laws, the third law states: Do not murder. And the sixth law states: Do not eat of a live animal.
So, where is this human meat coming from? Did you kill someone to get it? Because that is not permissible. Or, did you cut it off of a living person and then eat that? Because that is not permissible, either.
Now, you could possibly eat a human that died of natural causes if you really wanted to. However, the seventh law tells mankind to establish courts of justice and to ensure obedience.
In most developed countries, it's illegal to eat a corpse.