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In Devarim 1:37, Moshe tells us that

גַּם־בִּי֙ הִתְאַנַּ֣ף יְהוָ֔ה בִּגְלַלְכֶ֖ם לֵאמֹ֑ר גַּם־אַתָּ֖ה לֹא־תָבֹ֥א שָֽׁם

Because of you the LORD was incensed with me too, and He said: You shall not enter it either.

The only problem is that Eretz Yisrael (and every land in general) is nikaiva (feminine) so the Torah should have said גַּם־אַתָּ֖ה לֹא־תָבֹ֥א שָֽׁמָּה

  • Is Moshe saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael or someplace else (ex: another land, one specific part of Eretz Yisrael?

  • If he IS saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael, why does he refer to the land in zachar (masculine) and not nikaiva?

  • If he ISN'T saying that he can't enter Eretz Yisrael, then to where is he referring?


Based on the comments of DonielF, I am also wondering if anyone knows why referring to Moshe it says שם and why in the next pasuk referring to Yehoshua, the Torah uses the word שמה?

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שמה is not the feminine form of שם. Inasmuch as there is a difference in meaning, שמה may mean "to there" (as in מצרימה - "to Egypt" in, e.g., Genesis 12:11) whereas שם just means "there". See also, e.g., here.

  • So why does the Torah use שם by Moshe and שמה in the next pasuk (1:38) by Yehoshua? – Ploni Almoni Jul 30 '17 at 16:29
  • @PloniAlmoni Again, שמה means "to there" - Yehoshua will lead the people "to there." If part of your question is why one is used by Moshe and another by Yehoshua, perhaps you should edit that into your question. – DonielF Jul 30 '17 at 21:15

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