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Can I give a בשר בחלב restaurant coupon to a goy that would allow him to get a free בשר בחלב meal? Would this be considered getting הנאה from בשר בחלב? (Assume this coupon can only be redeemed for a בשר בחלב meal and not just drinks or other meals that aren't בשר בחלב.)

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The באר היטב in סימן צד - דין התוחב כף חולבת בקדרה של בשר 94:3 says:

(ח: בהנאה. (ר''ל הקערה צריך שבירה והמאכל זורקו לבית הכסא אבל לא לפני הכלב אפי' אין הכלב שלו‏

The Shulchan Aruch says "If a pot has milk & meat cooked in it, everything is forbidden, including the pot."

The Be'er Heitev adds that in the case of an earthen vessel that cannot be kashered, the vessel needs to be broken and the food thrown down the toilet, but not given to a dog, even if you are not responsible for feeding this dog.

It seems that the mere fact that you feel good about having fed a stray dog is considered "benefit".

it would follow, I assume, that the fact that you know that another human got a meal, would surely be forbidden.

OTOH: In the case in the Shulchan Aruch you're feeding the dog the forbidden mixture. In your question, you're simply enabling the possibility. There's also the possibility that the goy will pass on the voucher to another goy - totally removing you from the prohibition/benefit. So maybe the cases aren't similar.

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  • I remember seeing a pri megadim which I can't find that says, you can't give a goy meat and milk and tell him to cook it for himself, because it's a shvus. However, you could give him money and tell him to buy בשר בחלב for himself . My question here I believe is an in between case. I was hoping someone could help me find the pri megadim, and explain it to me. Jul 23, 2017 at 15:09
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In סימן צב - דיני אם נפל חלב לקדרה של בשר the Shulchan Aruch says that if meat fell into boiling milk, one gets a goy to taste the milk, and if he can't taste any meat then the milk is kosher.

Note: we don't seem to rely on this method, but that's not what we're discussing. See your LOR for practical applications.

א כַּזַּיִת בָּשָׂר שֶׁנָּפַל לְתוֹךְ יוֹרָה שֶׁל חָלָב רוֹתֵחַ, טוֹעֵם הָעוֹבֵד כּוֹכָבִים הַקְּדֵרָה, אִם אָמַר שֶׁיֵשׁ בָּהּ טַעַם בָּשָׂר, אֲסוּרָה, וְאִם לָאו, מֻתֶּרֶת, אֲפִלּוּ בְּפָחוֹת מִשִּׁשִּׁים, וְאוֹתָהּ חֲתִיכָה אֲסוּרָה. ‏

Point being that one may even feed a goy one's own meat & milk mixture for one's own benefit. Surely one can give him a voucher which would enable him to do same.

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    I don't belief there's benefit here. We are trying to determine wether the item is בשר בחלב or not. If it's not בשר בחלב then everything is מותר. If it ends up being בשר בחלב, then the benefit occurred before that was determined. I wouldn't even come on to that svara, I dont think letting a goy taste the food is the same as giving him food, I dont think he's makir tov for letting him just simply taste it. Jul 23, 2017 at 15:03
  • @Eliyahu A coupon to allow him to go to a place that has food is far from the same as giving him the food. Just because I give someone a coupon it doesn't force him to use it. How would the coupon be any different from my giving money to him and telling him, "Go buy yourself a cheeseburger, if that's what you wish?"
    – DanF
    Jul 24, 2017 at 16:45
  • I don't understand how this answers the question. If one gives someone else a coupon, that has a value to it however it's quantifiable - the person is indebted to me by the gesture etc. In the answer above, there is no benefit the goy receives by having him taste my pot of food other than the actual tasting of the food; on the contrary, he is doing ME a favor, whereby I will now know the status of the food.
    – Earl
    Jul 24, 2017 at 17:36
  • @DanF When i give him the coupon i'm benefiting from the fact that someone will get בשר בחלב. perhaps thats a step higher than money that could be spent on anything (even when i tell him to get בשר בחלב). Or perhaps this logic is to far removed from the actual benefit. Im trying to link this to a pri megadim that i mentioned in a comment to the second answer. Jul 25, 2017 at 6:34

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