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If there was less than a minyan during the Amida and the participants continued on then the 10th comes in when they are ready for Kaddish Shalem. Do they say Kaddish Shalem at that point? Or do we say the Kaddish is on the Amida and since there was no minyan then there is no Kaddish now?

For example, Shabbos Rosh Chodesh, there was no minyan until the congregation was in middle of Hallel. Do they say Kaddish Shaleim after Hallel?

  • Can you add any info that assumes that saying Kaddish Shaleim is specifically dependent on Chazarat Hashat"z? I'm inferring that you may be getting this from a reverse assumption. I.e. if they began with a minyan and they didn't have one for Kaddish, they should still recite the Kaddish. I don't know if one can deduce the reverse from this reasoning. – DanF Jun 27 '17 at 16:09
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    Seemingly Hallel (or even Ashrei/uVa leTziyon) is no worse than Shir HaShirim (or any other verses), so the only question is about reciting Titkabal, but certainly the rest of kaddish could be said – Double AA Jun 27 '17 at 16:10
  • @DanF, I don't have a source other than the content of the Kaddish - תתקבל וכו' and the fact that it is only said after an Amida. – Yishai Jun 27 '17 at 16:12
  • An interesting test case could be that of Pores Al HaShema. Also worth looking at the phenomenon of a minyan where a minority already davened (which may be functionally equivalent to PAHS anyway). Does that get a Titkabal? – Double AA Jun 27 '17 at 16:16
  • @DanF consider judaism.stackexchange.com/q/69829/759 – Double AA Jun 27 '17 at 16:22

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