From what I understand, partially based on Yevamot 47b and Rambam Hilchot Issuray Biah end of chapter 13 and beginning of chapter 14, when a potential convert first expresses an interest in converting the court attempts to dissuade her. This is learned out from how Naomi attempted to dissuade Ruth (Ruth Chapter 1). My questions are

  1. If no attempt is made to dissuade her is the conversion still valid?
  2. Where did Naomi know to do this from? Meaning is there a source in the Torah for this concept?
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    Do we learn everything straight from the Written Torah? What would make you think there would be a passage in the Written Torah that would suggest this? – ezra Jun 12 '17 at 16:03
  • @ezra otherwise it would seem to be counter-intuitive/productive. Why would someone be allowed to do anything which may in any way prevent a non-Jew from becoming a Jew? – rikitikitembo Jun 12 '17 at 16:34
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    @rikitikitembo in Orthodox Rabinnic Judaism, the literal text that appears printed in the Five Books is not the entire Law. – Robert Columbia Jun 12 '17 at 17:23
  • @RobertColumbia but is not all the law either sourced there or else clearly identified as having some other source (ie a law taught to Moshe at Sinai)? Are there other examples of a law taught by a common folk (ie not a prophet)? – rikitikitembo Jun 12 '17 at 18:14
  • There is a world of a difference between standard operating procedure and Law. Issurei Biah 13:14 says what "we do", i.e. what should be done, but it does not mention an actual obligation. – mevaqesh Jun 13 '17 at 11:56

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