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Why should the voice of a woman be viewed as being different (according to Jewish Law) than that of a man, for the sake of "singing in public"?

marked as duplicate by DonielF, sabbahillel, Gershon Gold, mevaqesh, Danny Schoemann May 29 '17 at 10:12

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    I'm voting to close as a dupe for @rosends' link, but I'm tempted to flag this as a rant in disguise. – DonielF May 28 '17 at 14:21
  • @msh210 wadr, I liked this question way better as originally expressed by the OP. – Loewian May 28 '17 at 15:50
  • @Loewian, with the rant in it? Curious. Well, I don't need to have the last word here: anyone can edit. – msh210 May 28 '17 at 16:17
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You ask why a woman's voiceshould be treated differently to a man's voice. The referenced question “What is the source for a woman's voice as ervah?” provides you with the material for an answer. A woman's voice is considered as “ervah”.

The Wikipedia article on tzniut - modesty refers to dress, hair covering and the female singing voice and discusses its relevance to ervah.

It seems that the female singing voice has a similar categorisation as immodest dress or hair-covering. Evidently the male voice does not have the same qualities.

So the issue does not relate to the voice in the active service of G-d, but rather to not using the voice in order to serve G-d's will.

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