Regarding the prohibition of deriving benefit from a murderous animal (shor haniskal), the gemara (e.g. Bava Kamma 41a) suggests (in an initial interpretation) that, from the fact that the Torah uses the term "יאכל" (lit: eat) instead of "יהנה", the prohibition must be from the time of conviction rather than just after the execution (when consumption would have been forbidden anyway since would be a nevelah).
Without getting into the details of the analysis, is the word הנאה and its variants a biblical word that the Torah might have used it?
When does the word first appear?
