Regarding the prohibition of deriving benefit from a murderous animal (shor haniskal), the gemara (e.g. Bava Kamma 41a) suggests (in an initial interpretation) that, from the fact that the Torah uses the term "יאכל" (lit: eat) instead of "יהנה", the prohibition must be from the time of conviction rather than just after the execution (when consumption would have been forbidden anyway since would be a nevelah).

Without getting into the details of the analysis, is the word הנאה and its variants a biblical word that the Torah might have used it?

When does the word first appear?

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    he.wiktionary.org/wiki/%D7%94%D7%A0%D7%90%D7%94 says it's Talmudic in origin – Double AA May 11 '17 at 3:49
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    this question may be strengthened by pointing out that by Basar VeChalav, The word "Tevashel" us used to mean Hanaah. And see Sefer Hachinuch mitzvat 113, where it quotes our Sages that "לפי שאסור אכילה והנאה דבר אחד הוא, כמו שאמרו זכרונם לברכה (שם) כל מקום שנאמר לא תאכל, לא תאכלו, אחד אסור אכילה ואחד אסור הנאה במשמע." -- Whenever is says variations of "eat" it means "benefit" as well. -- sefaria.org/… – Menachem May 11 '17 at 4:47

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