We know that first marriages are arranged in Heaven 40 days before a child is created. Second marriages however are based on the person's merits. What happens when it's a first marriage for one spouse but a second marriage for the other spouse? Do we say that it was arranged in Heaven on account of the one never before married or is it based on the individual's merits due to the partner that was already married? Perhaps it's both?

  • 1
    related judaism.stackexchange.com/q/2447/759 – Double AA Apr 21 '17 at 16:46
  • See commentaries to Sotah 2a. – MTL Apr 21 '17 at 17:17
  • Note that many things are less than so simple in reality. Regarding the premises in this question, see judaism.stackexchange.com/a/81350/8775. – mevaqesh Apr 21 '17 at 18:09
  • 1
    Consider clarifying the sources for what "we know" in this question. Not everyone has the same background knowledge as you. – mevaqesh Apr 21 '17 at 18:10
  • 1
    I have... complicated thoughts on the concept of predestination that fit right in with "HaKol Tzafuy Vihareshut Netunah" and higher order mathematic dimensions. But put simply, why could it not be possible for one person to be predestined to marry someone who merits to marry them back? – Isaac Kotlicky Apr 21 '17 at 18:42

You must log in to answer this question.

Browse other questions tagged .