Why does a family adopt its father's minhagim, not mother's? What is the scriptural source for this (or Talmudic)? Why does the wife take on her husbands minhagim and not vice versa? Is this obligatory? This is especially perplexing since the verse states "Do not abandon the Torah of your mother"!

  • Related: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/78750/… ? – Naftali Tzvi Apr 14 '17 at 21:21
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    Maybe it has something to do with the fact that tribal affiliation follows the father's line. – ezra Apr 14 '17 at 21:22
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    How do you know that customs follow the father? – mevaqesh Apr 14 '17 at 21:23
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    Consider asking about a wife separately. Questions should ask one question at a time. Otherwise they may be closed as you broad. – mevaqesh Apr 14 '17 at 21:27
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    I did some research, and it seems that the husbands minhag in his home is considered bining as minhag hamakom. We kno that the house is his makom and not hers since the Tora statesregarding divorce "And he will send her from his house".I guess I would have to open another question about the source for "minhag hamakom" – Naftali Tzvi Apr 16 '17 at 2:02

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