When can a sfek sfeka be used? For instance, if I am not sure if there is zera on something and then I touch it, can I say that I don't know if there was zera on it, and even if there was, I don't know if any got on me. Is this a valid sfek sfeka?

  • Welcome to Mi Yodeya Anonymous! I took the liberty of editing to depersonalise the question. Feel free to further edit it yourself. – mevaqesh Apr 2 '17 at 17:14
  • The principle of s'fek s'feika is often used in halakhic contexts. Is there some halakhic issue relating to touching zera? If so, consider clarifying what it is. – mevaqesh Apr 2 '17 at 17:15
  • Are you asking about sefeik sefeikah or about this particular case? (Which, by the way, seems subject to a machlokes in the poskim. I'll have to check the sources again.) Also, around here we try to write with proper grammar. Is it possible for you to edit to make it more legible? – DonielF Apr 2 '17 at 17:15
  • Im sorry about the grammer, i was asking if one could use this sfek sfeka in this specific or similiar type of case with regards to zera – Anonymous anonymous Apr 2 '17 at 17:18
  • Sorry i corrected my question – Anonymous anonymous Apr 2 '17 at 17:21

This wouldn't count as a sfek sfeka, as it's all about one thing -- did I touch something tamei?

One easy way to check is if it's reversible:

  • First of all, maybe I didn't touch it ...
  • And even if I did touch it ... maybe it wasn't there to begin with ...

Nope. Doesn't work.

  • Do you have a source for any of this? – mevaqesh Apr 2 '17 at 17:38
  • @Shalom isnt that a big machlokes – Anonymous anonymous Apr 2 '17 at 17:41
  • @Shalom so your saying that if the case was -is there zera on it and even if there is i dont know if i touched that part so then it is a valid sfek sfeka? – Anonymous anonymous Apr 2 '17 at 17:46
  • @shalom Whether it's reversible is a machlokes Shach and maharik – DonielF Apr 2 '17 at 17:50
  • I just realized thats probably th same thing lol – Anonymous anonymous Apr 2 '17 at 17:51

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