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If one has property in non Jew's house for storage that is chometz and one pesach the owner forgot about this chometz.

The nature of the storage being unpaid for and not even set aside in a specific location with only his property but left in a closet with the non-Jews other property to be kept safe. The owner of the property is not likely to use the items specifically but is not likely to do so as a result of having celiac which would make this person unable to consume most forms of chometz.

Since one disowns chometz that is not known about does this chometz become forbidden to the owner when they remember that it belonged to them many months later after chometz?

Does the status of the chometz change at all if every other year after this he remembers to sell this chometz before pesach?

  • 1
    A possible factor - if the Jew tells the non-Jew "watch my chametz, and don't use it", he seems to be using him as a shomer chinam - an unpaid guard. It's still the Jew's property, even if he forgot that it was there. If he says, "do you mind if I keep it here, and help yourself to anything at any time, and don't worry about repaying me for what you use." that may be a completely different situation. Maybe you want to narrow down the scope of your question? – DanF Mar 29 '17 at 19:59
  • @DanF There's also the consideration that a shoel/socher are considered to be owners on the item they're using (AZ 15a). – DonielF Mar 29 '17 at 21:00
  • I think this question should be closed per judaism.meta.stackexchange.com/q/3760. – msh210 Apr 2 '17 at 6:06

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