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For example Yanky married a gentile. Should he dump her and his gentile kids according to the 56th commandment in Rambam's list? Or does that commandment means he should in no circumstance marry a gentile, but now he has already, things are not so straightforward and other commandments might be at stake. In particular the 40th commandment not to oppress the widow and the orphan, as in by dumping his family he would be creating a widow and a bunch of orphans in the first place, like the ultimate oppression. The second question is, if the 40th has precedence over the 56th, that is he is stuck with his gentile family, then will he or won't he have a place in World to Come no matter how righteous a life he lives till the day he dies in all aspects of the Torah except having a gentile family? She won't convert neither she'll marry again if she is dumped her, since she's Catholic which won't recognize divorce or allow a second marriage. Looking for real Torah answer without any interference from political correctness.

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    Welcome to Mi Yodeya, Gari! We try to avoid practical halachic questions here. You might also want to see "Why is it necessary to ask a rabbi?" for more info. This is a very sensitive and personal question; I think you should definitely find a rabbi you're comfortable with to discuss this question. – MTL Mar 21 '17 at 17:23
  • As an example, see what happened in Ezra and Nechemiah where the people who had married ovdei avodas zarah had to leave them completely. – sabbahillel Mar 22 '17 at 1:35
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    possible dupe: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/54063/8775. – mevaqesh Mar 22 '17 at 4:07
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    this question has been edited in a way it is not asking for a p'sak din but a theoretical question – Laser123 Mar 31 '17 at 18:03

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