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In the Torah it says clearly that the punishment for speaking Lashon Hara' is צרעת. Why then do we not see this happening as an immediate or even delayed punishment nowadays? And why does the Torah say it will happen if not to this day?

marked as duplicate by sabbahillel, Shmuel Brin, DonielF, Scimonster, Gershon Gold Mar 19 '17 at 18:06

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    Where in the Torah does it say that clearly? – Double AA Mar 17 '17 at 16:41
  • Note it's not clear that there isn't Tzara'at nowadays judaism.stackexchange.com/q/17813/759 – Double AA Mar 17 '17 at 16:42
  • Because actual teshuva is more difficult without korbanot thus everyone is less holy and less worthy of an open miracle to avenge their honor. – Clint Eastwood Mar 17 '17 at 21:47
  • @sabbahillel I don't think that "why" is a duplicate of "when." – Shokhet Mar 19 '17 at 17:31
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See here where the article says

Nowadays, we do not experience open miracles, and therefore do not see the afflictions of tzaraas.

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