Chazal expound that the Jews were in Mitzraim for 210 years (see Rashi to Bereishis 42:2, and to Avodah Zarah 9a). Why is this figure mentioned nowhere explicitly, especially when other numbers are (see, for instance, Bereishis 15:13 and Shemos 12:41)?

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    Why is this at all surprising? Many Midrashic details aren't in the text. Probably even the vast majority. Please edit your post to better motivate this and explain why this is different from any other detail mentioned by Chazal. – Double AA Mar 15 '17 at 22:08
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    @DoubleAA Of course, but this seems like a pretty big thing that it left out - especially in light of the fact that it gave an entirely different number (430) that could have been the accurate one if not for that Midrash. – DonielF Mar 15 '17 at 22:10
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    (It might still be the accurate one in spite of the Midrash...) Plenty of other details are important to the story or seem to clash with the simple meaning of the text. In any event, you should edit your question to better motivate it, whatever that motivation is. – Double AA Mar 15 '17 at 22:11
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    related judaism.stackexchange.com/q/75610/759 – Double AA Mar 15 '17 at 22:13
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    Seems strange to ask this question here when the answer referenced by @Double, written by you, answers the question you ask here. – user6591 Mar 15 '17 at 22:22

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