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I read the question about whether Achashverosh was Jewish and I was wondering, why isn't Haman Jewish? He was Mordechai's slave (see Megillah bottom of 15a through the top of 15b with Rashi) and as an Eved Kenani he should have Halachically been Jewish, not Amaleiki (However see Rama 690:17 for example who makes it clear that Haman was actually Halachically an Amaleiki).

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    Trying to follow the question here. Why is Jewish via Eved Kenani synonymous with "not Amaleiki"? Shmuel II 1:13 seems to imply a convert can still be an Amaleki. – Y     e     z Mar 8 '17 at 3:59
  • @mevaqesh I mean, its the Gemara as well. I don't know if anyone argues with it, but if someone does argue with the Medresh and Gemara then this would not be a question according to that opinion. – Eliyahu Mar 8 '17 at 3:59
  • @Yez I read through the Meforshim there. No one I saw learns he was actually an Amaleiki. The Mahari Kara for example says that it just means he was a Ger from Amalek. Obviously now he is 100% a Jew and there would be no Mitzva to kill him. – Eliyahu Mar 8 '17 at 4:05
  • @Eliyahu It is a Midrash quoted in a lengthy Midrashic passage found in the Talmud. It goes without saying that all pashtanim would reject such a Midrash out of hand. – mevaqesh Mar 8 '17 at 4:07
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    @Eliyahu I think both that information, and that direction of the question, would improve the question. – Y     e     z Mar 8 '17 at 5:06
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This idea that Haman was Jew comes from the Chasam Sofer who writes that he was an eved canani and was considerrd a Jew. The question is then asked how can Mordechai make him into a convert if he was an Amaleki (who are barred from becoming converts of Israel). The Netziv brings down that only in times of war there is a problem of converting Amalek,but this wasnt during war time.

Text of source:

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  • Since when is there a prohibition to convert amalekites? – Double AA Mar 10 '17 at 1:25
  • from the Mechilta...end of Parshas B'shalach – sam Mar 10 '17 at 1:27
  • would you like the exact wording – sam Mar 10 '17 at 1:31
  • If you have it that would save me the trouble of looking it up later thanks – Double AA Mar 10 '17 at 1:32
  • passuk16 of bshalach: ר' אליעזר אומר: נשבע המקום בכסא הכבוד שלו שאם יבא אחד מכל האומות שיקבלוהו, ולעמלק ולביתו לא יקבלוהו, שנאמר: "ויאמר דוד אל הנער המגיד לו אי מזה אתה ויאמר בן איש גר עמלקי אנכי" (שמואל ב א יג). נזכר לדוד באותה שעה מה שנאמר למשה רבינו: אם יבא מכל האומות שבעולם להתגייר שיקבלוהו, ומביתו שלא יקבלוהו. – sam Mar 10 '17 at 1:35
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I'm very surprised but I actually found this in the middle of a Vort I was reading by Rabbi Eliyahu Hoffman.

Some mefarshim (commentators) explain that the phrase, “for he told him that he was a Jew,” means that Mordechai was telling people that Haman was himself a Jew.

In the year 3393 (368 b.c.e) [the second year of Achashveirosh’s reign], an Indian province rebelled against the Persian Empire, and the King sent twelve-thousand troops to quell the rebellion. The two generals leading the troops were Mordechai and Haman. Each lead six-thousand troops, and was given provisions for three years. Mordechai lead his troops in attack from the east, while Haman attacked from the west.

Haman squandered his provisions, and at the end of the first year he had already ran out of supplies. He appealed to Mordechai for help. Mordechai agreed, but on one condition: Haman would have to serve as his slave one day a week. Without any other choice, Haman was forced to agree. [Me’am Lo’ez]

The non-Jewish slave of a Jew must undergo a conversion process, including milah (circumcision) and tevilah (ritual immersion), at which point he becomes obligated in many Torah laws, including all (applicable) negative commandments, and some positive ones. According to this Midrash, Mordechai could rightly have told people that Haman’s seething hatred of the Jews was ridiculous, as fate would have it that he too was a Jew.


I do wish he would have mentioned who these "Some Meforshim" are. I'm not sure if he means that it's the Me'am Loez.

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