According to Wikipedia it claims that Jerry Seinfeld married a woman who was already married to a man without her getting a get from the man she was previously married to, so wouldn't that make Jerry Seinfeld's kids mamzerim?


closed as off-topic by mevaqesh, Noach MiFrankfurt, Isaac Moses Mar 3 '17 at 14:43

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    Are any of them Jewish? Was the first wedding valid? – Double AA Mar 3 '17 at 14:37
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    If the status of Jerry Seinfeld's kids becomes a practical issue for you, I recommend that you take it up with your rabbi. Barring that, their status is presumably none of any of our business. If there's some aspect of this case that you're interested in learning more about (that is beyond the basic point of the consequences of a woman having children with a second man while married to the first, which is the basis of this question), I recommend rewriting this post to clearly ask about that rather than about these people. – Isaac Moses Mar 3 '17 at 14:47
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    Note that the Wikipedia article does not say that she did not receive a get This is something that would only become an issue if your children intend to marry their children, or if their children. Even if their children need to find out, that is up to them and not you. – sabbahillel Mar 3 '17 at 14:53

I don't know anything about this person's particular situation.

For theory's sake: the product of an "adulterous union" is a mamzer. It would have to be a Jewish woman who was still married according to Jewish law to a Jewish man, and then has a child with a different Jewish man. And even then, only if this specific child was conceived "adulterously."

If the marriage between the Jewish couple did not follow halacha, many rabbis (e.g. Moshe Feinstein and Joseph Soloveichik) would use that as a leniency to not declare the offspring a mamzer, arguing that the mother was not really married to the first man.

It's fortunately thus fairly rare today.

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