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According to Jewish law, is it permissible for the Christian to

  1. Pray in Hebrew
  2. Call on G-d as Hashem, Elokim, Adonai in prayer

Who accept Torah/Tanakh as beneficial even when translated

Note: I am a Christians learning Tanakh/Torah. I thought about converting to Noachide. I just want the truth about the Bible and I think it reads better in Hebrew in all cases. I wouldn't try to convert anyone.

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    Welcome to Mi Yodeya Intruder! I moved your title into the body, and added a title that summarized the question. – mevaqesh Feb 27 '17 at 3:37
  • @intruder13x I don't think that any of the information in the question would indicate any problem (and that the aforementioned problem of proving negatives, will therefore apply). The only problem I could imagine would be disrespecting the Hebrew language by using it for prayer to a triune God; (which is obviously against Judaism). However, from your comment about considering Noahidism, I assume that isn't a concern here. (You may want to clarify what you mean 'Christian' in the question; practicing vs. non-practicing.) – mevaqesh Feb 27 '17 at 3:53
  • I used mostly Christian material to study the Torah/Tanakh in Hebrew (except for a few websites and JPS translation). It seems Christianity is similar to Ba'al worship in the Naviim it would be difficult to change overnight. I see the New Testament is still heavily Tanakh inspired although in practice I prefer the 'old' to the new. – intruder13 Feb 27 '17 at 3:59
  • @HaLailahHaZeh See this Beginners' Guide to the site. – mevaqesh Feb 27 '17 at 4:19
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    I believe this is the second time that I have seen this question in the close queue as a "comparative religion question," and I am not voting to close. The close reason text says that it is for "any question that requires of its answerers any knowledge of a religion besides Judaism." As far as I can tell, this question does not require any knowledge of Christianity to be answered appropriately; the mere mention of another religion does not make this a "comparative religion" question. – Shokhet Mar 5 '17 at 3:05
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Based solely on the points of the question, why would there be any doubt about if it is permissible? According to the Jewish tradition as found in the Torah concerning the confusing of language in connection with the story of the Tower of Babel in the book of Bereshit, Hebrew was the first language, that was used by all mankind. It is not the exclusive domain of Jews, but of all descendants of the first man, Adam.

The names of G-d which appear in the Torah are also not Jewish names, they are G-d's names. They are relevant to all nations, both Jews and non-Jews.

The benefit of Hebrew, particularly if you as an individual understand the meaning of the words, is that it is the Holy Tongue, לשון הקודש. That means that its usage is especially efficacious in communicating clearly and completely the intent of the speaker. This is because Hebrew actually relates to and reveals the inner essence and nature of existence like is explained in connection with Adam HaRishon naming all of G-d's creations in parshat Bereshit.

So the real point for you to ponder is, after careful consideration, do you believe that it is G-d's will that you serve Him as a Christian? Or is there a better path, a better choice for you?

From your comments and the details of your question, it sounds like that is where you are right now. But it also sounds like you are searching and questioning with sincerity. And in that area Jewish tradition teaches that for those who truly seek G-d, G-d will assist them and bless them.

May it be G-d's will, that if you choose to use Hebrew in your studies and your prayers, that you receive and comprehend G-d's unique message for you and that you have success in translating that message into good acts in your service to the Owner of us all.

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    it is the Holy Tongue, לשון הקודש. That means that its usage is especially efficacious in communicating clearly and completely the intent of the speaker. That's not what holy tongue means. – mevaqesh Mar 1 '17 at 4:19
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    Note that this this nice universalist derash does not tell us whether there is or is not a halakhic issue. Especially noteworthy is that the Hebrew language has various laws associated with it, and is must be treated with special respect. Perhaps being used in the context of trinitarian prayer, for example, would violate this. – mevaqesh Mar 1 '17 at 4:21
  • @mevaqesh You should go back and reread the teshuva from Rambam quoted by Barlop which states specifically in regard to Christians the appropriate behavior in the current day, meaning prior to the establishment of a Torah based, Jewish monarchy in Israel. judaism.stackexchange.com/a/68217/7303 – Yaacov Deane Mar 1 '17 at 6:14
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    I have seen it and have already commented regarding it there. It appears completely irrelevant to everything here. If you believe it is relevant to your post, edit the post, and don't leave relevant information in the comments. – mevaqesh Mar 1 '17 at 14:42
  • @mevaqesh "ואם יעמידום על הפרוש הנכון, אפשר שיחזרו למוטב, ואפילו לא יחזרו, כשרוצים שיחזרו, לא יבוא לנו מזה מכשול" This explains Rambam's view of how to actually relate. And that is the sentiment and intention of my answer. And frankly, it was the sentiment you were expressing to sabbahillel and others when the question was first posted. – Yaacov Deane Mar 1 '17 at 15:34

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