According to rashi's drash explanation (taken from :סוטה יב) of שמות ב:ו ד״ה ותפתח ותראהו how can השכינה, a grammatically feminine word, refer back to the masculine objective suffix הו-? Perhaps rashi brought this explanation second over his pshat possibly because of this weakness (viz. the lack of grammatical concordance). Can drash explanations such as this transcend the realm of grammar?
If we say these two letters are a masculine name of Hashem then why couldn't rashi just have referred directly to that name and bypass the grammatical gender agreement issue?