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Why is it that sometimes one finds that Rishonim who attempt to explain the simple pshat of a posuk in Tehillim (Eben Ezrah, Radak, Me'iri, Seforno), will ignore the ta'amei di'krah (the simanim that tell you where to make stops in the posuk when laining) and give a pshat that doesn't fit in with the these ta'amim? (There are many examples but to just throw out the one I noticed today - Tehillim 15-4 Eben Ezrah)

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    what does it mean according to trup vs. ibn ezra? the trup on Tehillim (and two other books) is different from the standard, so it is hard to understand your example. – josh waxman Jan 19 '17 at 18:53
  • Are you wondering about Tehillim specifically? – Double AA Jan 19 '17 at 18:57
  • How is this different from any other place where two people give different explanations and we accord value to both? Ex. judaism.stackexchange.com/q/17249/759 – Double AA Jan 19 '17 at 18:58
  • @joshwaxman I think he's thinking of the first three words. If we translate back to regular trop, it's like a Legarmeih-Munach-Revii, but Ibn Ezra reads it more like Kadma-Azla-Revii as he says נבזה קשור בעיניו גם נמאס as if the pause is on בעיניו. – Double AA Jan 19 '17 at 19:00
  • @DoubleAA. Yes, that's what I was referring to. And there are so many others. I'm not looking for a case specific answer though. I just wanted to understand why the Rishonim wouldn't feel limited to an explanation(s) that fits in with the ta'amim. – Mark A. Jan 19 '17 at 19:05

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