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On Berayshit 37:2, the Torah says:
"וַיָּבֵא יוֹסֵף אֶת־דִּבָּתָם רָעָה אֶל־אֲבִיהֶם"
According to proper grammar, shouldn't it have said dibbatam ha'ra'ah since ra'ah is modifying a definite noun?
The definite accusative marker את along with the possessive suffix -ם are evidence that dibbatam is a definite noun.
Indeed, if Ra'ah was modifying Dibatam, it should have said that, as expressly noted by Shadal:
ורעה דבק עם ויבא, שאם לא כן היה לו לומר דבתם הרעה.
Rather, as he and others note, the word Ra'ah is talking about the action of bringing the "Dibah", or negative report.
(AB) In other words, רעה here is an adverb, answering "how did Yossef bring דבתם?". In Hebrew רעה is similar to מהר-מהרה (fast) or רע-רעה.
