1

This question already has an answer here:

Recently at a Shabbos table I heard that the addition to shir hama'alot "Tehillat Hashem" (a compilation of four verses beginning with Psalms 145:21) was anti-zionistic and shouldn't be said. I heard alternatively that these additions dated to at least as far back as the time of the Arizal. Can anyone explain how these tehillim could be anti-Zionistic, or provide any historical sources for their coming before Zionism?

marked as duplicate by Double AA Dec 11 '16 at 14:42

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

  • Well, the Yeckes (German Jews) traditionally say them, and they are also traditionally anti-Zionist. But I don't think the verses themselves have any such connotation. Also, if a religious Zionist finds that verses of Tanach are anti-Zionist, I would assume that he would abandon his Zionism rather than abandon the verses. Except of course if his belief in Zionism is stronger than his belief in Tanach... – Adám Dec 11 '16 at 10:19
  • 1
    @Adám My question is what is the history of the addition to these phrases to Bentching – Gabriel Dec 11 '16 at 10:54
  • 2
    @Adám To use an extreme and very awful example, nobody wants to say Devarim 14:53 before bentching, but that doesn't mean we're abandoning it. If it was Bamidbar 14:41-43 I could understand the question. But I have no idea what תהלת ה' has to do with anything other than praising Hashem. – Heshy Dec 11 '16 at 10:57
  • 2
    It seems very strange, the verses are apparently not linked with Zionism. – kouty Dec 11 '16 at 11:14
  • was anti-zionistic and shouldn't be said These seem like two different points, being conflated. – mevaqesh Dec 12 '16 at 2:47

Browse other questions tagged .