is the Hebrew rule of grammar always consistent when it lays down the rule that "no two shevas begin a word?" For example, Brashith (Genesis) 27.28 uses the vav sheva followed by a yud sheva. Shouldn't this be read kri (pronounced) vav patach "vav hahipuch" rather than read as written k'tiv vav sheva (vav hachibur)?

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    Can you quote the word or phrase you refer to? I see no double Shva in Gen 27:28 – Double AA Nov 29 '16 at 5:27
  • ve'ye'ten וְיִתֶּן – Yochanan Mauritz Hummasti Nov 29 '16 at 5:33
  • The Yud in that word has a Chirik, not a Sheva. Whats the problem? It's pronounced w'yitten, meaning: and he will give. – Double AA Nov 29 '16 at 5:34
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    You didn't respond to my comment. Do you have any examples of two Shevas in a row or not? Why are you citing a word that doesn't have that property? – Double AA Nov 29 '16 at 5:45
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    @YochananMauritzHummasti No one has any idea what you're talking about. There is no Dagesh that is dropped in וְיִתֶּן. – Double AA Nov 29 '16 at 20:02

וְיִתֶּן is a jussive, the translation therefore "May He (G'd) give" (and not: He will give)


There is (kind of) one exception to that rule, but ויתן is not it. It's in Haazinu 32:5:

הַ לְיְהוָה תִּגְמְלוּ-זֹאת

(I say "kind of" because ה לה' is read as one word.)

  • Moreover the Sheva under the Yud is really a Chataf Patach under an Alef. – Double AA Nov 29 '16 at 20:02
  • @DoubleAA yes but a chataf patach is a type of sheva anyway – Heshy Nov 29 '16 at 20:31

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